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Am I understanding this correctly?

Posted: Sun Aug 07, 2022 10:37 am
by lostinmiddlemormonism
So with the recent revelation that the church's helpline was advising bishops to not report sexual abuse of children the rationale seems that this is because:

1. reporting such abuse to authorities would violate confidentiality of the clergy/parishioner confessional
2. that the law does not require clergy to violate this confidentiality

That would seem to imply that:
The church is stating that what you share with the bishop in confidence is expected to remain confidential and that there is both an expectation of confidentiality on the part of both the parishioner and the church and that a violation of this confidentiality is contrary to the training the bishops receive and the doctrine of the church. HENCE, does it not also follow that the next time a bishop shares confidential information from a member with the ward council, the bishops wife, etc. that they are in violation of this standard and that both they and the church could then be sued based on this precedent? You would think that would be something the church would not want.

The second point would seem to imply that the church believes that the law trumps the requirements for ethics or morality, and that doing the legal thing is more important than doing the right thing...is that them message they want to share with members?

I really am curious as to you thoughts.

-lost

Re: Am I understanding this correctly?

Posted: Sun Aug 07, 2022 12:02 pm
by dogbite
You're forgetting that this, like all church instructions, are for a one way street where all benefits flow towards the interests of the church. If you're ever confused about the direction, check the flow of benefits and you'll know how the church wants you to proceed.